I agree, I am not saying it was not a foul on Clingan, as it clearly was a flagrant 1. I just do not understand how a basketball move that incidentally causes a foul can be assessed the same as a non basketball move which was deliberately done to attempt to injure another player.
To me they are different things, both are fouls, but should not be assessed the same. As far as I know there has never been a leniency rule for payback fouls.
If you ask me, not based off of the way the rules are written, but to what I think is fair, Clingan's should be a common foul and the other one should have been a Flagrant 1.
"A flagrant 1 foul is two shots and the ball and that means excessive in nature or unnecessary or avoidable, uncalled for or not required by the circumstances of the play.
A flagrant 2 foul is two shots and the ball and the player is ejected from the game. The rules committee added more words to describe this scenario, including brutal, harsh or cruel or dangerous or punishing."
The line about a flagrant 2 being "brutal, harsh or cruel or dangerous or punishing" doesn't really apply to the retaliation.