- Oct 11, 2012
- Reaction Score
I was watching the ND - UNC game last night with my wife and found myself pulling for ND for the first time in my life. Regardless of how you feel about either team, it was a great game to watch. I'll sum it up for those that didn't watch, and then get to my question. ND is up by 13 in the 2H, with around 2 minutes to go UNC goes up 1. ND then regains the lead by 1, gets the ball back and is on the line with the possibility of going up 3. ND player (can't remember his name) misses the front end and before anyone even remotely had possesion of the ball, the ref on the baseline blows his whistle with his fist in the air (like he was about to call a foul) and then inexplicably points to the UNC bench signalling a time out. It definitely looked like he was calling a foul (even the commentators thought that's what he was doing). After I got my initial complaining done (because you can't call a ticky-tac foul in that situation AND UNC didn't have control of the ball), I thought about it again, and it looked like the ref was going to call a foul, and then a split second after he blew his whistle he realized that he didn't want to end the game that way, so he gave UNC the timeout. That's the only thing that makes sense to me, because when he blew his whistle NO ONE had control of the ball. Of course it could have been a complete homer call or any other form of collusion you wish to suggest, but I'm interested to get someone's opinion that watched the game. What were your thoughts?